UPSC CSP 2021 - GS Paper 2 CSAT Solutions Q1-20

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
With respect to what are called denomination of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such things as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be a judge of each other’s religion, there is no such thing as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.
Q.1 What is the most logical assumption that can be made from the passage given above?
(a) No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.
(b) It is the duty of everyone to propagate one’s religious denomination.
(c) Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man.
(d) Men do not understand their own religious denomination.

Ans. (c)

Solution

Option (a) is incorrect as the passage does not assume that an individual cannot survive without following any religious denomination.
Option (b) is incorrect as the passage is not about propagation of religion.

Option (c) is correct as when we consider our religion to be the correct one and all others as false, we are assuming that all men are not united by any shared common values or principles.

Option (d) is incorrect as it is never implied in the passage directly.

Passage – 2
It is certain, that sedition, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship but must be made so. Besides, men’s natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unity, nor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.
Q 2. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?
(a) Seditions, wars, and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.
(b) It is not the people, but the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.
(c) That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship.
(d) It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion.

Ans. (c)

Solution
Option (a) is incorrect. That sedition, wars, etc. are inevitable, cannot be an inference drawn based on the passage.

Option (b) is incorrect. “All problems” are beyond the scope of the passage.

Option (c) is correct. Passage mentions that if there are more sedition, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws in dominion in comparison to another, it is due to laws which lack foresight, and the sovereign has not pursued unity.

Option (d) is incorrect. The passage argues that it is possible for men to establish a good dominion by following certain principles.



Passage – 3
Inequality violates a basic democratic norm: the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect of some fundamental characteristic that they share in common. Equality is, morally speaking, a default principle. Therefore, persons should not be discriminated on grounds such as race, caste, gender, ethnicity, disability, or class. These features of human condition are morally irrelevant. The idea that one should treat persons with respect not only because some of these persons some special features or talent, for example skilled cricketers, gifted musicians, or literary giants, but because persons are human being, is by now part of commonsense morality.
Q 3. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Equality is a prerequisite for people to participate in the multiple transactions of society from a position of confidence.
2. Occurrence of inequality is detrimental to the survival of democracy.
3. Equal standing of all citizens is an idea that cannot actually be realized even in a democracy.
4. Right to equality should be incorporated into our values and day-to-day political vocabulary.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: Since the passage is talking about the removal of inequalities, it can be assumed that equalities are prerequisites for people to participate with confidence.

Statement 2 is Correct: Since the passage talks about the violation of democratic norms when inequality is present, it can be assumed that the occurrence of inequality can threaten the survival of democracy.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The first line establishes Equal standing of all citizens as basic democratic norm.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Beyond the scope of the passage.


Passage – 4
Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself by the incautious scramble for immediate wealth. But even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy. Its basic principle is the equal right of all to hold office and determine public policy. This is, at first glance, a delightful arrangement; it becomes disastrous because the people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. The people have no understanding and only repeat what their rulers are pleased to tell them. Such a democracy is tyranny or autocracy. – Plato
Q 4. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?
(a) Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.
(b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.
(c) Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.
(d) Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.


Ans. (b)

Solution

Option (a) is incorrect: This is a general statement.

Option (b) is correct because author discusses through examples, how Govt. can turn into tyranny due to excess.

Option (c) is incorrect because although the statement can be implied from the passage, it does not necessarily reflect the essence of all the ideas ie the crux of the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect. Government is not presented as “necessary”. Moreover, it is not suitable as the crux of the passage.




Q 5. In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons in the group can speak English. The number of Indians who can speak English is
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 30 or less
(d) 30 or more

Ans. (d)

Solution

Out of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and 40 are foreigners.
Out of 120 persons, 70 can speak English, and 50 cannot.
The number of Indians who can speak English
maximum – when English speakers and Indians overlap completely = 70
minimum - when English speakers and Indians have a minimum overlap = 80+70-120 = 30
So, English-speaking Indians will fall in the range of 30 to 70. Hence, correct choice is D.


Q 6. Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits) obtained using three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3. Let S be their sum.
Which of the following is/are correct?
1. S is always divisible by 74.
2. S is always divisible by 9.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Solution

Three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3 are: 3, 6, and 9.
Using these 3 digits, we can make 6 three-digit numbers (3x2x1 or 3!)
So their sum, S = 369 + 396 + 639 + 693 + 936 + 963 = 3996
We can see that, it is divisible by both 74 and 9.

Q 7. There are two Classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In Class-A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In Class-B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Four students are shifted from Class-A to Class-B.
Consider the following statements:
1. The average score of Class-B will definitely decrease.
2. The average score of Class-A will definitely increase.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

Solution

Most important fact to observe here is that entire range of marks for class A is less than range of marks for class B (17 to 21, compared with 22 to 30). So, each student in Class B has more marks than any student of Class A.

Also, we know that - Average = Sum of observations / Number of observations

Since 4 students are moved from A to B, therefore average of class B will definitely decrease as range of marks for class A is less than range of marks for class B. Statement 1 is correct.

However, we cannot be sure regarding the marks of the 4 students that have been moved from class A. They may have marks close to 21 (highest in class), which will lead to decrease in the average marks of Class A. If they have marks close to 17 (lowest in class), it will lead to increase in the average marks of Class A. Therefore, we cannot determine whether average of class A will increase or decrease. Statement 2 is incorrect.



Q 8. Consider two Statements and a Question:
Statement-1: Priya is 4 ranks below Seema and is 31st from the bottom.
Statement-2: Ena is 2 ranks above Seema and is 37th from the bottom.
Question: What is Seema’s rank from the top in the class of 40 students?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?
(a) Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question
(b) Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question
(c) Either Statement-1 alone or Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
(d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Questions.

Ans. (c)

Solution

From Statement 1, we get:

From Statement 2,we get:

We know that, there are 40 students in the class.
Seema’s rank from the top can be calculated using either of the statements. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q 9. Consider two Statements and a Question:
Statement-1: Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but one of them is the heaviest.
Statement-2: A is heavier than D, but is lighter than C.
Question: Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?
(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
(c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question
(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

Ans. (a)

Solution

From statement 1, we get:
A & D > B, E & F
As none of them is the heaviest, we can conclude that C must be the heaviest. So, statement 1 alone is sufficient.
From Statement 2, we get:
C > A > D
Using statement 2 alone we cannot determine the heaviest item.


Q 10. In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order, and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on; and at the end Y and Z are interchanged. Which will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter?
(a) N
(b) T
(c) H
(d) I

Ans. (b)

Solution

The English alphabet is: ABCD EFGH IJKL MNOP QRST UVWX YZ
As per the question, the letters are arranged as follows:
DCBA HGFE LKJI PONM TSRQ XWVU ZY
13th letter in this arrangement is P.
And the 4th letter to its right is T.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
India faces a challenging immediate future in energy and climate policy-making. The problems are multiple: sputtering fossil fuel production capability; limited access to electricity and modern cooking fuel for the poorest; rising fuel imports in an unstable global energy context; continued electricity pricing and governance challenges leading to its costly deficits or surplus supply; and not least, growing environmental contestation around land, water and air. But all is not bleak: growing energy efficiency programmes; integrated urbanisation and transport policy discussions; inroads to enhancing energy access and security; and hold renewable energy initiatives, even if not fully conceptualized, suggest the promise of transformation.

Q 11. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?

(a) India’s energy decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.
(b) India’s energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals.
(c) India’s energy and climate actions are not compatible with its broader social, economic and environmental goals.
(d) India’s energy decision-making process is straightforward supply-oriented and ignores the demand side.

Ans. (a)

Solution
Option (a) is correct- As the passage talks about the challenges and prospects of energy and climate policy. The problems are multiple & the mention of myriad factors like sputtering fossil fuel production capabilities, unstable global market, etc. illustrates how the energy decision-making process is complex and interconnected.

Option (b) is an incorrect. SDGs are beyond the scope of the passage.

Option (c) is an incorrect. There is not much evidence in the passage to suggest this.

Option (d) is incorrect. The passage policy and decision-making process is complex due to several factors like import deficit, saturated production capabilities, etc. So, this option can be deemed contrary to the passage and can be rejected.


Passage – 2
There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promotes in the 1990s, the major pork exporters say it is producing more pigs – and the animals get fewer diseases.

Q 12. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?

(a) People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming.
(b) Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin.
(c) Using antibiotics on animals should be banned.
(d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.

Ans. (d)

Solution-
Option (a) is incorrect. Passage doesn’t mention anything on these lines.
Option (b) is incorrect. Passage doesn’t mention anything on these lines.
Option (c) is incorrect. Passage talks about minimizing the use of antibiotics on animals to grow them faster given their ill effects on human health. But banning them for other usage is not suggested and is little far-fetched.

Option (d) is correct. Passage mentions the ill effects of antibiotics as growth promoters and how many have banned antibiotic growth promoters but not its use as a drug to treat diseases. So, as a critical message, Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases seems suitable.


Passage – 3
Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.

Q 13. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies.
Which of the above statements is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Ans. (b)

Solution

Statement 1 is incorrect. Passage only mentions that high fuel prices are leading to increasing food prices. Rather than oil-producing countries, emerging economies are discussed as one of the reasons for high fuel prices.

Statement 2 is correct. The passage mentions that “…..highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis”. Hence, assumption that the food crisis will occur in Emerging economies is valid.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Passage – 4
A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they mean growth in GDP.

Q 14. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country.
2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)
Solution-
By using negation test, both are found valid.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 15. Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R and S are law reports; the rest are Gazetteers. Books of old Gazetteers with blue covers are
(a) Q and R
(b) Q and U
(c) Q and T
(d) T and U

Ans. (c)

Solution

The following table represents the information given in the question:

PQRSTUV
ColourRedBlueBlueRedBlueRedRed
Old/NewOldOldOldNewOldNewOld
Law/GazetteersLawGazetteersLawLawGazetteersGazetteersGazetteers



Since we have been asked about the books which are old gazetteers with blue cover, therefore option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 16. Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence
3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28, 43, 40
where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 6

Ans. (a)

Solution

On separating the Odd and the Even Series, we observe the following pattern:
ODD SERIES                EVEN SERIES
3                                   0
3 + 4 = 7                       0 + 4 = 4
7 + 6 = 13                     4 + 6 = 10
13 + 8 = 21                   10 + 8 = 18
21 + 10 = 31                 18 + 10 = 28
31 + 12 = 43                  28 + 12 = 40
On observing the given two series, we observe that the first term “2” in EVEN SERIES should be replaced by 0, therefore option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 17. Following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry (?) accordingly.
7B10A3C
3C9B6A
10A13C?

(a) 9B
(b) 3A
(c) 3B
(d) 3C


Ans. (c)

Solution

From one row to another, the letters shift in a cyclic manner, i.e. BAC to CBA to ACB.
As far as the numbers are concerned, the pattern has been depicted below:

So, the required alpha-numeric term is 3B.


Q 18. You are given two identical sequences in two rows:
Sequence-I:8461552.5236.5
Sequence-II:5ABCDE
What is the entry in the place of C for the Sequence-II?
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 9.375
(d) 32.8125

Ans. (c)

Solution

The inherent pattern in the two sequences has been represented below.
Sequence I                      Sequence II
8 × 0.5 = 4                        5 × 0.5 = 2.5 (A)
4 × 1.5 = 6                        2.5 × 1.5 = 3.75 (B)
6 × 2.5 = 15                      3.75 × 2.5 = 9.375 (C)
15 × 3.5 = 52.5
52.5 × 4.5 = 236.25


Q 19. A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15 km. X walks with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1 km/hr in the first hour, with a uniform speed of 1.35 km/hr in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr in the third hour and so on.
Which of the following is/are correct?
1. They take 5 hours to meet.
2. They meet midway between A and B.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Solution

Distance between places A and B = 15 km
Speed of X = 1.5 km/hr
So, Distance covered by X in 5 hours = 7.5 km

Speed of Y in 1st hour = 1 km/hr
So, Distance covered by Y in 1st hour = 1 km
Similarly, Distance covered by Y in 2nd hour = 1.25 km
Distance covered by Y in 3rd hour = 1.5 km
Distance covered by Y in 4th hour = 1.75 km
Distance covered by Y in 5th hour = 2 km
So, the total distance covered by Y in 5 hours = 1 + 1.25 + 1.5 + 1.75 + 2 = 7.5 km
Hence, both the given statements are true.

Q 20. A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion 5 : 6 : 7 : 8 : 9 : 10. Overall he scored 60%. In how many number of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Ans. (b)

Solution
Let total marks in each subject be 100.
Therefore, total marks for all 6 subjects = 600
Overall marks scored = 60% of 600 = 360
According to the question,
5x + 6x + 7x + 8x + 9x + 10x = 360
or 45x = 360
or x = 8
So, marks in the given 6 subjects must be:
5 × 8 = 40
6 × 8 = 48
7 × 8 = 56
8 × 8 = 64
9 × 8 = 72
10 × 8 = 80
Hence, in 3 subjects the student has scored less than 60% marks.